abab9579 (Aug 28 2022 at 09:16): abab9579 (Aug 28 2022 at 09:16):Hello, I am lost searching for a lemma giving differentiable f x -> forall v, derivable f x v. If my memory serves correctly, this one holds (while converse does not). Where is the corresponding lemma? (Or is this easily proved in some other way?)
Last updated: Feb 05 2023 at 15:03 UTC